NABH 6th Edition " Interview Important Question and Answer"

NABH Most Important Question and Answer 

 1. What is NABH?

Ans: National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers

2. How many Chapters, Standards & Objective Elements are in NABH (6th edition).

Chapters-10

Standards-100

Objective Elements-639

3. Name of the Chapters :

Patient Centric Chapter

a. AAC (Access, Assessment & Continuity of Care)

b. MOM (Management of Medication)

c. COP (Care of Patient)

d. PRE (Patient Rights & Education)

e. IPC (Infection Prevention and Control)

 

Organization Centric Chapter

a. PSQ(Patient Safety & Quality Improvement)

b. ROM (Responsibility of Management)

c. FMS (Facility Management System)

d. HRM (Human Resource Management)

e. IMS (Information Management System)

4. What is an SOP

Ans: Standard Operating Procedure- it is a detailed set of written instructions to achieve uniformity of the performance of a specific function of the relevant department made by the department.

6. What services are not available in the hospital?

a. Patients requiring Radiation Oncology

b. Nuclear Medicine

c. Patients with deep burns

d. Patients with Psychiatric illness requiring admission

7. How many bedded hospitals?

Ans:  As per the Hospital beds

8. How do you identify a patient?

Ans: ID band / UHID No. and ask the patient’s full name when conscious

9. What is the time frame within which a medical record of a discharged patient should reach the Medical Record Department?

Ans: Within 48 hrs

10. Who has authority for Grievance Handling?

The 4-tier system exists in our hospital: Immediate Supervisor / Functional Head / Unit HR Head / Unit Head.

a. The employee will raise a grievance in the prescribed form to the Immediate Supervisor.

b. If not resolved within 2 working days, information to the Functional Head.

c. If not handled within 3 working days, the Unit HR head is informed.

d. If the problem is still not solved within 3 working days, then the Unit Head is informed.

e. The Unit Head will take necessary measures and communicate the Report / Judgment within 7 working days, and her decision is final.

11. What is the retention period for a normal file in medical records?

Ans: In-Patient File in MRD Up to 10 yrs., OPD records up to 5 yrs., Diagnostic test reports up to 5 years.

12. What is the retention period for an MLC file?

Ans: Till the resolution of the case in the highest court.

13. How long do you rub/ wash your hands?

Ans: Hand rub for 20-30 seconds, Hand wash for 40-60 seconds, Surgical hand wash 2-6 minutes. We follow WHO guidelines.

14. Consent to be taken for :

a. Admission General Consent

b. OPD General Consent

c. Surgery Consent

d. Anaesthesia Consent

e. Blood Transfusion Consent

f. Procedure Consent

g. Haemodialysis Consent

h. Restraint Consent

i. HIV Serology Consent

j. Radiology Consent, etc.

Remember - All consents are Informed Consents, hence they need to be explained to the patient.

15. What is surrogate (next of kin) consent?

Ans: If a patient is unable to give consent due to unconsciousness or physical/ mental disability or if the patient is a minor (less than 18 years of age), then the next of kin is authorized for surrogate consent (next of kin-parents, husband, wife, son, or daughter more than 18 years).

16. Who are vulnerable patients?

Ans: Patients < 16 yrs, >60 yrs, physically/mentally challenged, Patients who cannot perform ADL (Activities of Daily Living), patients with Language Barrier, all critically ill patients and patients in Critical Care units, & post-OP (24 hrs) patients, Pregnancy patients 2nd stage, Drug Abused patients, Physically abused patients. This group of patients needs special attention and nursing care.

17. Who informs patients about rights and responsibilities?

Ans: Patient Services Executive. At the time of admission, we explain patient or patient's relatives about this. Also, there are electronic displays and printed displays.

18. Name a few patient rights.

a. Assess to his/her medical record

b. Informed consent

c. Confidentiality

d. Refusal of the treatment

e. Second opinion

f. Voice a complaint

19. Name a few patient responsibilities.

a. Provide complete patient information & medical history.

b. Abide by all hospital rules & regulations (like no smoking, visitor policy, tariff policy).

c. Not to give medication prescribed for himself/herself to any other patient.

20. State four measures to ensure patients' right to privacy and dignity.

a. Covering the patient during transfer

b. Drawing the curtains before the examination of patient

c. Ensuring the presence of a female attendant for a female patient during examination/procedure.

d. Knocking on the door before entering the patient's room 

21. State three measures to ensure patients' right to confidentiality.

a. Not to discuss patient-related information publicly.

b. To share patient information only with authorized persons / next of kin.

c. Not to keep patient records/files in open areas during visiting hours.

22. How would we address the spiritual need of a patient?

Ans:  Patient can practice his/her spiritual belief without interfering with another patient. The prayer area is on the ground floor. If required, the patient lounge on the 6th floor can be used as a Prayer room. Priest services are allowed

23. Emergency Code Numbers of our Hospital

a. Code RED (for fire) – 1111

b. Code BLUE (for cardiac arrest) 

c. Code YELLOW (for any disaster) – Inform - Emergency Medical officer

d. Code BROWN (major spillage) 

e. Code GREY (Security threat) 

f. Code PINK (Child abduction) 

g. Code VIOLET (Violent Patients)

24. What is the composition of the CPR team when Code Blue is announced?

a. Emergency Doctor / Emergency Nurse / Anaesthesiologist – from Basement to 2nd floor

b. Critical care doctor / Critical Care Nurse / Anaesthesiologist – from 3rd floor to terrace

25. How soon is the crash cart to be replenished after it is used in a code blue situation?

Ans: Should be refilled within 1 hour by the Nursing In Charge

26. Full form of LASA

Ans: Look Alike Sound Alike (medicine)

27. How to store & monitor high-risk medicine? Name a few? 

Ans: Proper label with High Risk sticker, stored under lock. Should not keep open at the patient's bedside. After administration of any high-risk drug patient should be closely monitored to notice any adverse event or not. If we notice any ADR, immediately stop the medicine and inform a doctor.  E.g., Concentrated electrolytes like KCl (> 2.2 mEq/ ml), NaCl (> 0.9%), MgSO4 (50% or more), Narcotics like Morphine, Fentanyl, etc., Midazolam, Diazepam, Serenace (haloperidol), Chemotherapeutic agents

28. How to store a narcotic drug? Name a few?

a. We don’t store narcotic drugs in our wards/ or anywhere in the hospital except in the Hospital pharmacy.

b. Narcotic drugs are indicated as and when required by the patient's name; a separate Prescription is written by a doctor.

c. Narcotics are stored under a double lock, both keys with 2 different persons.

d. Disposal of unused drug in the presence of a second witness.

e. Records of stock, indent, administration, and disposal are maintained in the Narcotic register.

f. Eg: Morphine, Fentanyl, Pethidine

29. How are narcotics discarded?

Ans: In the presence of 2 nurses/ witnesses, a narcotic drug is discarded in the sink, and the vial/ampoules are disposed of in a puncture-proof container, and the same action is documented in the narcotic drug register.

30. What is ADR? How is it identified and reported?

a. Adverse drug reaction. When an unwanted, unintentional adverse reaction occurs at therapeutic doses within a specified time of drug administration, that is called an ADR.

b. Immediately stop the drug and inform the In-house doctor & the Consultant in charge.

c. Report of incident needs to be filled up in the ADR Reporting form that is to be sent to HOD for Root Cause Analysis.

d. A copy should also be sent to the Pharmacy & Quality Assurance dept.

e. The Pharmaco-therapeutic committee reviews and analyzes all incidents.

31. What is a medication error? How is it reported?

a. Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm, while the medication is in the control of the healthcare professional, patient, or consumer.

b. Report of the incident needs to be filled up in an incident form that is to be sent to the concerned HOD for Root Cause Analysis.

c. Incident report should be made immediately after the incident. The same has to be submitted QA department. within 24hrs.

32. What is a hospital drug formulary?

Ans: Booklet with list of drugs in generic, brand names, strengths, and dosage forms available in hospital stock, reviewed in PTC (Pharmacy & Therapeutic Committee) meeting for addition of any new drug.

33. How do you indent for a new/non-formulary drug?

Ans: A specified form to be filled indicating justification of use of a new drug, the form is available with the pharmacy, filled by a consultant, and sent to the pharmacy. Approval is taken from MS for the same.

34. What is a drug recall?

Ans: Action taken to take back a product/medication by the pharmacy if there is any adverse reaction for a particular batch, or some contamination, or if any notice comes from the drug controller/manufacturer.

35. What is a near-expiry drug as per hospital policy?

Ans: Expiry within 3 months, it is returned to a pharmacy at least 3 months before for replacement

36. What is the protocol for opening reusable vials?

Ans: Reusable Vials have to be labeled with their date of opening. To be thrown as per the direction on the vial / after one month. If it is the name of a patient, a patient label should be stuck on the vial, and it should be discarded after patient discharge.

37. What happens to medicines once they are discontinued?

Ans: In case of full strips and unopened bottles, they are returned to the pharmacy. Otherwise they are handed over to the patient during discharge.

38. What should be the temperature of the refrigerator in which medication is stored?

Ans: 20- 80 °C. Temp logs are filled in every shift.

39. What is the hospital's policy on syringes with diluted medication?

Ans: Labeled with name of patient, UHID, name of drug, Dose, Dilution, date of preparation, Signature, and date.

40. What is the definition of restraint? When is it done?

Ans: Any method (even bed rails) of restricting of person's freedom of movement, physical or normal activity. It is done when a patient is at risk of harming himself/ herself or others, and no other less restrictive intervention is possible

41. How often is a patient on restraint assessed?

Ans: Every 2 hours or earlier if required.

42. When are our patients initially assessed & re-assessed by nurses?

Ans: On admission, within 30 minutes, reassessment is done in every shift by nurses.

43. Service Standards for Initial Assessment completion by doctors:

a. ER – Assessed ASAP, completed within 10 minutes

b. Critical Care – Assessed ASAP, completed within 20 minutes

c. Ward – Completion of assessment within 1 hour00

44. When & how are our patients assessed for Pain?

a. On admission & in each shift, in between if required.

b. VAS (Visual Analog Scale) is used to assess pain i.e., ‘0 – 10’ marking on the basis of the severity of pain. 

• ‘0’ represents no pain, 
• 1-3 represent mild pain, 
• 4-6 represent Moderate pain, 
• 7-10 represents the worst pain.

45. What is a Sentinel Event? List down a few sentinel events?

a. “Any unexpected occurrence involving death or major and enduring loss of function for a recipient of healthcare services.

b. Major and enduring loss of function refers to sensory, motor, physiological or psychological impairment not present at the time services were sought or begun.

c. The impairment lasts for a minimum period of 2 weeks and is not related to an underlying condition.

· Patient suicide

· Restraint death

· Patient falls causing death or major harm

46. When should you generate the ‘Incident Form’?

Ans: Any unwanted incident occurring in our hospital will be reported to the HOD & QA department. (within 24 hours) In writing the incident form. That may be a process / individual fault. Corrective and Preventive actions are taken based on the analysis of the Incident.

47. How do you report a sentinel event?

a. On recognition of a sentinel event, report immediately to the immediate in charge.

b. Immediate reporting of Sentinel event is done to the Departmental Head, MS, Head- Operations, Unit Head.

c. Participate in filling out the incident report form.

d. RCA (Root Cause Analysis) is then initiated. Provide as much information as possible during an investigation. Corrective / Preventive actions are undertaken accordingly.

48. How do we help prevent patient falls?

a. By accurately assessing the patient for vulnerability during Initial Admission and daily assessment

b. By reassessing the patient at every shift

c. The nurse call bell should be kept in proximity to the patient's

d. Adequate education should be imparted to patients regarding the prevention of falls

e. By keeping the side rails up / belt while transporting patients on stretchers/wheelchairs

f. Use of the Safety First board for vulnerable patients.

49. What is HAZMAT?

Ans: Hazardous material

50. What is MSDS?

Ans: Material Safety Data Sheet for hazardous/chemical material (e.g., Microshield, Sodium Hypochlorite, Bacillo floor, Virkon, Petrol, etc.).

51. What is PPE? Name a few components?

· Personal protective equipment. E.g.: gloves, cap, apron, mask, goggles.

52. How would you handle the following spills:

Management of Spill Protocol

Call 1111 & cordon off the area

Housekeeping staff follow the following steps:

a. Wear PPE; use Caution Board, cordon off the area

b. Cover the area with paper/tissue paper/absorbent)

c. Put 1% Sodium Hypochlorite solution on the spill & wait for 30 minutes. 10 d. After that, drag the folded absorbent pads/newspaper from the margin towards the inside & with the help of prongs, discard all the pads/newspaper in a yellow bag.

e. After this, mop the area with 2% Bacillo floor solution.

f. Strict Hand Washing to be done after the spill management

53. What do you do in case of a blood spill on a patient file (Contaminated patient file)?

Ans: An incident report form is to be filled up and sent to MS / NS. A contaminated file is put in a yellow Colored bag, sealed, labeled, and sent to MRD. MRD makes a photocopy of the entire file and sends the photocopied file back to the ward, duly signed by the Medical Superintendent.

54. What goes in yellow, red, and black bags and a White, puncture-proof jar, a blue-marked jar?

Colour Waste description

Yellow bag: Body parts, placenta, human tissue, surgical waste, cotton, bandages, pathological waste, Microbiological waste, dressings, soiled plaster, soiled diapers, soiled Molly sheets, face mask, blood bags, any other wastes contaminated with blood or body fluids

Red bag, Syringes without a needle, urine bags, catheters, stents, gloves, IV sets, apron, and any other tubing

Black Kitchen Waste

Puncture-proof container: All Sharps - Needles, blades, scalpels, nails, lancets

Blue marked container: Broken glasses, vials, ampules, broken slides, metallic implant, glass bottle,e excluding cytotoxic residue

55. What do you do if you get a needle stick?

a. Wash the area under running water. Never press the injured area. 

b. Inform the nurse in charge/the shift in charge/ Infection Control Nurse

c. Ensure the Sharp Injury form is filled.

d. Report to Emergency immediately.

56. What is PEP? Where is PEP kept? How fast should PEP to be taken?

a. Post-Exposure Prophylaxis

b. It is kept in our Emergency.

c. It should be taken within 24 hrs of needle stick (if the patient is known serology positive)

57. Name a few quality indicators:

a. Patient falls

b. Pressure Ulcer (Bed Sore)

c. Medication Error

d. Blood wastage

e. Patient initial assessment time

f. Discharge time

58. Name hospital-wide indicators for infection control

a. CRBSI (Catheter-related bloodstream infection)

b. VAP (Ventilator-associated Pneumonia)

c. CAUTI (Catheter-associated urinary tract infection)

d. SSI (Surgical site infection)

e. Number of Needle Stick Injuries

59. Why is patient and family education important?

    To facilitate patient /family participation in of care being provided.

    To provide the best possible care at home

60. What are the important topics for patient/family education?

a. Infection Prevention

b. Safe use of medication

c. Food-drug interaction

d. Non-drug reactions

e. Maternal & child nutrition

f. Safe use of medical equipment

g. Pain management

h. Fall prevention

i. Informed consent

j. Immunization

61. What would you do if you got a bomb threat call?

a. Remain calm

b. Speak in a normal tone

c. Listen to the caller's voice carefully & listen for any background noise

d. Note down the details

e. Dial 2222 and give the above details

f. CODE BLACK is activated for any security threat, including a bomb threat

62. What is the Code to be activated if we get 10 or above injured patients at a time in the ER?

Code Yellow is activated by dialing 2222.

Code Yellow shall activate only by the Emergency Medical Officer, Medical Superintendent & Unit Head.

If you get any such communication, when our emergency may get 10 or more patients at a time, inform the Emergency Medical Officer.

63. What is the color-coding in triage?

a. Red: Priority One (Most Urgent)

b. Yellow: Priority Two (Urgent)

c. Green: Priority Three (n non-urgent)

d. Black: Priority Four (dead)

64. What would you do in case of fire?

RACE

a. R- Rescue anyone in immediate danger

b. A- Alarm (pull MCP / Dial 1111), Announce Code Red and location, Type of Fire

c. C- Confine / Contain the fire

d. E- Extinguish if trained or safe to do so./ Evacuate

Use the extinguisher by the ‘PASS’ technique

65. Full form of “PASS “

· P- Pull the pin

· A- Aim at the base of the fire

· S- Squeeze handle

· S- Sweep from side to side

66. How many types of fire extinguishers are there?

a. A - Water type

b. AB - Mechanical Foam

c. BC - CO2

d. ABC - Dry Chemical Powder

67. How many air changes/hour occur in our OTs?

Ans: 20 air changes/ hour

68. What are the types of medical gases used in the hospital, and what are the

What colors of the pipe carry the gases?

As per IS 2379:

Oxygen Pipe color is Yellow with a White band

Nitrous oxide Pipe color is Yellow with a French Blue band

Compressed air Pipe color is Sky Blue with a Black & white band

Vacuum Pipe color is Sky Blue with a Black band

69. How should dirty, infected linen be transported?

Ans: Dirty infected linen is disinfected in Sodium Hypochlorite solution for 30 min., then transported in a double yellow bag.

70. Name two radiation safety devices.

a. TLD (Thermo Luminescent Dosimeter) badges

b. Lead aprons

71. How are lead aprons handled? Inspected? How often?

Ans: Lead aprons are never folded; they are hung on hangers. Every 6 months, the lead aprons are inspected under a CT scan to check their integrity.

72. Name four procedures or departments where conscious/moderate sedation is administered. 

a. CT / MRI 15 

b. Endoscopy

c. Cath Lab procedure

73. What are the six R’s of drug administration?

a. Right patient

b. Right drug

c. Right dose

d. Right time

e. Right route

f. Right documentation

76. What are Occupational Health hazards?

a. Sharp Injury / Needle Stick Injury

b. Exposure to Infectious agents

c. Exposure to Hazardous materials (HAZMAT)

77. To whom should you report in case of any Occupational Health problem?

Ans: Emergency Medical Officer & Department Head

78. What are the documents in medical records that show evidence for continuity of care?

a. Doctor Progress notes

b. Nursing care plan

c. Nursing Daily Assessment

d. Nutritional assessment / Reassessment & Dietary Notes

e. Physiotherapy Assessment/ Reassessment & Physiotherapy Notes

f. Handover notes / Transfer Notes

g. Investigation reports

h. Discharge Summary/death summary/transfer summary

79. How can we ensure that a patient is operated on/at the right side/site?

a. By ensuring that the surgical site is correctly marked

b. Use of Surgical Safety Checklist in OT / Time Out Checklist for any other invasive procedures

80. The fifth vital sign for patients is?

Ans:  Pain

81. At what interval should the oxygen cylinder be checked & when should it be sent for refilling?

Daily, once in each shift (Morning, Afternoon, and Evening).

To be returned to the maintenance department for refilling when the pressure reaches < 50.

82. When should the Ambulance medications & equipment be checked?

Ans: Once daily & also before the ambulance leaves the hospital for patient pick up.

83. Which is your closest Fire Exit Plan?

Ans: Please check your closest fire exit plan, Ground floor

84. What is an employee's right (staff right)?

a. Appointment letter

b. Salary

c. Leave as per hospital policy

d. Medical Benefit

e. Natural justice

f. Voicing of grievance

85. What are employees' responsibilities?

a. Follow hospital policies/rules/regulations

b. Display Employee ID card during working hours

c. Participate in a training programme.

86. What assessment system/tool is used in  Hospitals for your professional development?

Ans: Performance appraisal.

87. What is a Performance appraisal? Who does performance appraisal?

Ans: A Formal evaluation of the performance of an employee over a particular period. The head of the department.

88. International Patient Safety Goals: Six Patient Safety Goals

Goal 1: Identify patients correctly (Use at least 2 identifiers, Patient name & UHID No.)  

Goal 2: Improve effective communication (READ BACK & CONFIRM VERBAL COMMUNICATION) 

Goal 3: Improve the safety of high-alert medications (Use of red Colored High-alert stickers, double verification before dispensing/ administration of high-alert medications) 

Goal 4: Ensure correct-site, correct-procedure, correct-patient surgery (By using Surgical Safety Checklist / Time-out checklist) 

Goal 5: Reduce the risk of health care-associated infections (WHO recommended Hand hygiene protocol used in our hospital, Biomedical waste management)

Goal 6: Reduce the risk of patient harm resulting from falls (patient fall-risk assessment & reassessment, patient education)

89. Illustrate a few Benefits of NABH Accreditation:

a. Benefits for Patients- high quality of care and patient safety, served by credentialed medical staff. The rights of patients are respected and protected.

b. Benefits for Hospital &Hospital Staff- Continuous learning, good working environment, leadership and above all ownership of clinical processes, improves overall professional development of Clinicians and Para Medical Staff.

c. Benefits to paying and regulatory bodies- Accreditation provides access to reliable and certified information on facilities, infrastructure, and the level of care.

90. What is the hospital's policy on smoking?

Ans: No Smoking Zone

91. Which is the department that deals with patient complaints?

Ans:  The patient service department, along with the Head - Operations.

92. What are the processes we follow to address patient complaints?

a. For any assistance or counseling regarding services in the hospital or in case of any complaint or feedback, contact: Duty Manager

b. If complaint is not properly addressed by duty manager, contact Patient Counselor cum Grievance Officer

c. The Grievance Cell and Counselor Room is located on the Ground Floor.

d. The Grievance Cell is open from 8am to 8pm.

93. Who identifies the patient's needs and how?

Ans: Doctors/Nurses identify patients’ physical, psychological, social, cultural, and spiritual needs through initial assessment and re-assessment.

94. What is End of Life Care? What is the policy?

a. DNR (DO NOT RESUSCITATE) is not legal in India. All patients are to be provided with comfort care.

b. providing appropriate pain and palliative care according to the wishes of the family and patient;

c. sensitively addressing such issues as organ donation;

d. respecting the patient's values, religion, and cultural preferences;

e. involving the patient and family in all aspects of care; and responding to the psychological, emotional, spiritual, and cultural concerns of the patient and family (where possible)

95. When is discharge planning initiated?

Ans: At the time of regular reassessment by the consultant

96. Name a hospital-wide indicator for staff incidence

Ans: Needle Stick / Sharp Injuries

97. What is the Vision of Hospitals?

Ans: Be cherished as the best place to come for care and the best place to work.

98. What is the Mission of Hospitals?

a. To provide healthcare services, maintaining accountability in a responsible manner, which contributes to the physical, psychological, social, and spiritual well-being of the patients and community that we serve.

b. To participate in the creation of Healthier lives within the community is conforming to the requirements of our patients and customers around the clock, and constantly measuring and striving to improve the outcome of our care and service.

c. To create and sustain a work environment in which all participants are empowered and committed to continual quality improvement,s confirming the values of participation, acknowledgment, accountability, teamwork, integrity, and respect.

d. Create the national model of care through relentless pursuit of unparalleled quality and value to the satisfaction of patients, customers, and staff.

e. To carry on educational and research activities related to the provision of care to the sick and injured or related to the promotion of health and continually rethink, reshape, and 20 redefine solutions to healthcare challenges.

99. What is the Quality Policy of Hospitals?

Ans: To our patients, our best is our service commitment. We aim to:

a. Assure the Best Outcome

b. Build Seamless Service

c. Create Value

d. Satisfied with Personalized Care

100. Who is the Chairperson of the Anti-Sexual Harassment Committee (also known as the Internal Complaints Committee - ICC)?

Ans: Nursing Superintendent

101. Composition of Anti-Sexual Harassment Committee (also known as Internal Complaints Committee)?

a.  Nursing Superintendent

b. Assistant Manager –HR

c. Manager Hospitality

d. Consultant, Emergency Medicine

e. Social worker (External)

102. When and how to make a complaint to the ICC?

Any employee who feels and is being sexually harassed directly or indirectly may submit a complaint of the alleged incident to any member of SHPC in writing with his/her signature within 7 days of the occurrence of the incident.

104. What is the response time for the Code Blue team in case of Code Blue?

 Ans: Within 3 minutes

105. What is the response time for the fighting team in case of Code Red?

Within 2 minutes. Use of Orange-colored SAFETY FIRST Board & Green-colored SAFETY FIRST Board?

a. Orange-Colored SAFETY FIRST Board – Used for identifying Vulnerable patients

b. Green- Colored SAFETY FIRST Board - Used for identifying Infectious patients (for only non-sero-positive patients

107. What do you understand by a recall of reports?

Ans: Recall of reports (Lab & Radiology) happens if there is any error in the report. Withdrawal of the report is done from clinical areas or medical records and HIS. If it has already been issued to the patient, the corrected report is made available to the patient with the caution to ignore the earlier report and the corrected report is placed in the patient file.

108. What do you understand by Condemnation? Who is responsible for carrying out Condemnation?

The hospital disposes of or condemns unusable equipment & other engineering waste material or any unusable linen in a systematic manner. All records related to the condemnation of equipment are maintained. The Hospital Condemnation Committee, which is chaired by the Unit Head, is responsible for carrying out the Condemnation of any unusable material. The Store In-charge is coordinating the process. If you have any condemned items, list to be given to the Store In-charge.

109. What is the staff's developmental program of our hospital?

Ans: 1) Nursing induction programme (Within 15 days of joining).

2) Training booklets

3) CNE classes for a daily basis

4) BLS, ACLS, PALS OR NALS training.

5) Training Manuals ( like Monthly training calendar, training schedules)

6) External training programme.

110. Differentiate between privileging and credentialing in nursing professionals.

Ans: Privileging- It is the process for authorizing all medical professionals to admit and treat patients and provide other clinical services commensurate with their qualifications and skills.

Credentialing - The process of obtaining, verifying and assessing the qualification of healthcare providers.

111. What is our hospital’s nurse-to-patient Ratio?

Ans: Critical care area -ventilator 1:1,

Non ventilator: 1:2

Non critical care area - 1:6

112. What is the right time of initiation & completion of initial nursing assessment of patient at the time of admission?

Ans: Ward (within 30 minutes)

ICU (within 10 minutes)

Emergency (within 5 minutes)

113. What do you mean by reassessment?

Ans: After the initial assessment, the patient is reassessed periodically and this is documented incase sheet. Patients are reassessed at the time of receiving and transferring from one unit to another. Patients are also reassessed before and after shifting for investigations.

114. What is our hospital’s restraint policy?

Ans: Restraint order should be written by a doctor(types and reasons), consent should be taken from the patient's relative, and 2nd hourly it should be monitored by the nurse.

115. Define vision mission values in Nursing?

Ans: Nursing Mission:

Nursing service at hospitals is committed to safe and trustworthy nursing careof the best quality. it is based on continuous improvement as well as evidence based practiceswithin the environment of nursing education and research.

Nursing Vision:

1. Demonstrate nursing practice s through the Nursing process and nursing diagnosis

2. Provide patient centered care the respects the value of the patient and family and focus theirneeds

3. Provide best quality safe and trustworthy nursing care using evidence based global nursingstandards

4. Deliver interdisciplinary patient care and collaboration with other health care team members

Values:

Nursing value at hospitals are aligned with its group’s values, which are

1. Patient focused

2. Respect

3. Team work

4. Integrity

5. Accountability

6. Passion for Excellence

7. Positive attitude

116. What is the policy for vascular access device?

Ans: 1) The nurse shall select the appropriate types of catheter (Peripheral or central) to meet thepatient’s vascular access needs

2) The catheter selected shall be of the appropriate gauge and length with the fewest number oflumen and shall be the least invasive device needed to accommodate and manage the therapy

117. What do you meant by barrier Nursing

Ans: The nursing of patients with infectious diseases in isolation to prevent the spread of infection.The nursing professionals wear gowns, masks and gloves and they observe strict rules that labelingthe risk of passing on infectious agents.

118. . What are the standard precautions used in our hospital?

Ans: (a) Hand hygiene

(b) PPE

(c) Biomedical waste management

(d) Safe linen handling

(e) Spill management.

(f) Environmental cleaning

(g) Occupational health/ Vaccination

(h) Respiratory hygiene/Cough etiquette

119. Write the full form of following-

(a) HAI - Hospital Acquired Infection

(b) CAUTI -Catheter Associated Blood Stream Infection

(c) CLABSI - Central Line Associated Blood Stream Infection

(d) BMW - Biomedical Waste Management.

(e) MSDS - Materials Safety Data Sheet 

(f) VAP- Ventilator Associated Pneumonia

(g) NSI - Needle Stick Injury

(h) GCS - Glasgow Coma Scale

120. What are the five movement of hand washing?

Ans: (a) Before touching patient

(b) After touching patient

(c) After touching patient surroundings

(d) Before doing any aseptic procedure

(e) After exposure with body fluids

121. How will you empower nursing?

Ans .1.Involving in decision making

2. Appraisal and job incentives encouraging

3. Staff education

4. Promoting interpersonal relationships.

122. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfectant?

Ans: Sterilization - Process that eliminates, removes, kills or deactivates all forms of life and otherbiological agents(such as fungi,bacteria,virus.spore form etc)present in a specified region.

Disinfectant- Process of removing micro organism from the specific region.

123. What is the checking interval of Crash trolly?

Ans: According to our hospital’s policy- Once in a month if it is not open for a month. and at the time of patient crash.

124. What is the normal temperature of refrigerator?

Ans: 2-8 degree Celsius

125. What is the policy of verbal order?

Ans: No verbal orders shall be followed except in case of emergency. When verbal orders aregiven, ratification shall be done at the earliest and not later than 24 hrs.

 

126. Differential between job specification and job description?

Ans: Job specification-The qualifications/physical requirements, experience and skills required to perform a particular job/task.

Job description-It initials an explanation pertaining to duties, responsibilities and conditionsrequired to perform a job.